I am a 60+ male in otherwise good health. Abt 14 mos. ago I had what was diagnosed as a TIA. Lasted about 5 min. All tests came out OK - carotids clear, brain scan showed no damage, etc. No special treatment other than 81mg aspirin/d (I already have a clotting deficiency, so no blood thinner).
Six months later I have another similar instance, this time with no aphasia and only partial paralysis symptoms. I was hours away from a hospital - deep in a hike - and I felt better after 5 minutes.
Happened again last month, no paralysis, no aphasia, just a shimmering in my left eye, dizziness, tinging sensation in my extremities. 5 minutes. But I felt some cognitive loss for over a week. Went to my neurologist and he is certain that the initial TIA diagnosis was wrong - that it is hemiplagic migraine.
I had severe migraines in my 20s and 30s. I figured out some triggers, and stayed away from them. Also, by the time I turned 40 I never had another migraine. No one else in my immediate family suffered from migraines. My question are: Are hemiplagic migraines found in 60+ after a 20 year period with no migraines? I have no headaches - none - is this still possibly a migraine?
The doc wants me on verapamil (vs amlodipine which I take now). Side effect of verapamil is a lowered HR, but my resting HR is already in the mid/upper 40s to low 50s. So, I am worried about the med side effects. Especially if this isn't a hemipagic migraine. I can find nothing online about having this and NOT having headache pain, and getting this condition at an advance age after years without migraines.
I am trying hard to educate myself on this condition. Any responses will be greatly appreciated. I have an excellent neurologist - just want to educate myself as much as possible.View Thread
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