About 4 months ago, I started to feel a dull pain in my right groin area. Over time, it began to radiate more towards the front and lower, and can now even activate some pain in my quads or knee. Responds well to NSAID's, but their efficacy is diminishing, and I'm taking several a day.
Pain is nearly constant, worse at night. Rarely, it seems to have a good day where I feel very little, but baseline would still be a 3-4 on the pain scale. Pain is diffuse, dull, and difficult to excite with any certain leg movements - though leg articulation while weight-bearing (like climbing stairs) seems to be increase pain.
Saw my orthopedic doctor and got an XRAY this week. The results are as follows:
"AP of the pelvis and 2 radiographs the right hip obtained. No fracture, malalignment or bone lesion. Small acetabular labral ossicle noted bilaterally. No avascular necrosis. Femoral head-neck offset is normal. AP projection of the pelvis suggests acetabular retroversion with a figure-of-eight sign."
Can any of the professionals in the community comment to what this means? This is a little beyond basic internet articles on the subject, and a little outside of my lexicon.
My doctor still has a slight fear of idiopathic avascular necrosis, so I am getting an MRI done in two days to rule it out.
I know I cannot ask for anything diagnostic from the community, but some suspicions, suggestions, or comments that can help set my expectations will make me feel much better.
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