I received protected oral sex from a prostitute during a manic episode on Monday 6/23/14. I want to ensure I am disease free prior to engaging in any sexual activity with my wife.
In addition to being bipolar, I am also blessed with OCD. So while this encounter would be considered by most to be "safe sex" from everything I have read, my brain is concentrating on what ifs. I've read all of the medical site sexuality experts saying unprotected oral is relatively low risk, and I had a rubber on. I realize HIV is off the table for my activity, but I am still going to get tested.
To top matters off I have had some minor irritation at the tip of my urethra, it started the next day. This could be irritation from the latex or lubricant, but what if it is from bacteria gon/chla/tric/NGU? If bacteria got in could viruses?
Fueled by urethral discomfort, my crazy brain is latching on to the following:
The prostitute used her mouth to initially hold the reservoir tip closed as starting to roll it down on my head. I'm pretty certain her mouth did not touch my penis, but I fear the condom might have been compromised if her teeth were also involved there. After ejaculating, while removing the condom it appeared to be intact. Would have it "blown out" when I ejaculated if it had been damaged If compromised would it be easy to tell while I removed it?
I did not see any sores on or around her mouth. I understand asymptomatic shedding. I did not look inside of her mouth. Skin to skin to contact did not occur between my genitals and her mouth for all intensive purposes. I do not believe her mouth ever went over the protection of the condom however she also manually stimulated with her hand and it certainly wasn't on the condom the whole time. It is probable a small amount of saliva was rubbed on the shaft of my penis in an uncovered area. Are there any risks with the combination that would concern a sane person?
At this point I'm planning on the 8 panel STD testing in 12 weeks regardless. If I have any more obvious symptoms develop or the discomfort increases it will be sooner. From what I have read that 12 weeks should be sufficient, but every now and then you see "get retested in 6 months" or "sometimes it takes a year for herpes to show up." With the relative low risk of my activity, can I call it a day if negative at 12 weeks?
I'm going to be a basket case for some time to come, but any information you can give about risk level considering the activity and test windows suggestions considering the risk level could really help out.
Thank you again for the reply. I was more concerned about spit gettng in prior, when she used her mouth to hold the condom while the other hands to unroll it. She seemed well practiced so I bet she would have been better at putting on condoms properly than most of the population. Just another what if because I can't figure out why I would be haging UT discomfort since I believe the condom was on for all the time it should be, covering all it should be, etc.
As to gonorrhea, chlamydia and trich clearing themselves, I would have believed the same, but a leading STD expert Dr Hunter Handsfield has listed in many posts on MedHelp that our immune system does indeed clear these on its own. Here is one post of his I came across,
"Before antibiotics were developed (pre 1940s), it appeared that gonorrhea cleared up in most infected men in a few weeks and in women within 6-8 months. Chlamydia probably lasts longer, probably up to a few months in men and a year or so in women. After a year 90% of infections in women appear to resolve, but there is one recorded case of an infection still present 4 years later."
Crazy huh? I am not going to use that information to skip out of testing though, rather as additional comfort in addition to testing. Sometimes DRs will do the nitrate and leukocyte tests, skipping culture. My line of thought is that if their testing isn't good enough, there is a likelyhood it will have already resolved itself by the time I am in the best window for HSV testing (which is why is why I plan on waiting 11 more weeks absent severe symptoms).
I'm still suffering some urinary tract discomfort, and keep asking myself How/Why that can be.
I'm trying to convince myself if somehow some spit carrying Gon/Syph/Chla/Tric ended up in the condom that still would not be a vector. It appears I would practically have to, for lack of a better term, deep throat for gon/Chla to transfer without the condom. I haven't found any really good answers about how well trich would do but it appears even wet towels can transfer it. Mental note, don't dry crotch with towel for some time in case wife/kids use it.
I know my mind can pull tricks on me and I am certain I am concentrating on my crotch too much right now. But I do have a noticeable sting in my urethra and now also noticing some discomfort in my bladder - peeing more frequently. What I don't get is why it doesn't hurt while I am peeing but I notice it much later - again OCD?
That doesn't seem the sort of thing a reaction to latex or the lubricant would cause for this long. I read something about peeing before intercourse or typical "flora" down there can lead to UTIs - Though generally this applies more to women from my reading. I suspect a condom might increase such negative effects in men since some fluid could end up back in there for a while, and lead to issues. I don't think I peed afterwards either.
11 weeks until tests unless I start dripping, get bumps or something. I've read several posts from Dr. Hansfield stating that Gon/Chla/Trich often cure themselves; but I certainly don't want to risk transferring it if in 12 weeks a basic pee tests shows negative. I have read that often the strips say "no" but the culture shows "yes". If the thing doesn't cure itself perhaps symptoms would get worse and easier to tell.
I'm planning on getting some Azo strips and some Azo relief today when I pick up my meds. Pee on the stick tomorrow morning and see if anything is there. I guess false positives are more likely.
Any additional replies would be greatly appreaciated.View Thread